Wednesday, October 31, 2007

The LXX

Well, no use in introducing this issue with some story that nobody cares about, so I'll get right to the point. Here is what I was taught in my Advanced Greek Grammar class: The Septuagint is not merely a translation of Scripture, but it is also a reflection of the Jewish theological climate of the day. It is somewhat difficult to explain, but the Jews did not just translate the Scriptures from the Hebrew into the Greek. Rather, they brought their theology with them into the translation process, and the LXX contains in it 2nd-3rd cent. B.C. Jewish theology. The impilcations are somewhat noteworthy. Let me throw out one example we're all familiar with. Ps. 8 contains the word "elohim" in the Hebrew and "angelos" in the LXX. Thus, the translators had to make an EXEGETICAL decision to view the verse as contrasting man against angels rather than against God Himself. Big deal? Well, that was an easy example. Another more significant one: look at Genesis 1:1-2 in the LXX "the earth was invisible." Two significant things: first, the earth was invisible? second, is Greek philosophy creeping into the translator's theology by his choice to use the imperfect form of "eimi"? I may be misrepresenting my professor, who is truly a Greek scholar, but I think the concept itself is interesting. I have thought through it and I have my answer, but I'll let you all think your way through this one for a while. Oh, additionally he thinks that the LXX is Scripture, as in 1 Tim. 3:16 Scripture. The authors of the NT quote from it as authoritative, and that is enough evidence for him to say that it can be called Scripture. Enjoy.

5 comments:

Matthew LaPine said...

This becomes a tricky discussion because the new testament figures quoted that LXX authoritatively. Personally, I think theres nothing wrong with criticizing the LXX because the inspiration of the New Testament isnt based on always having inspired sources. Its a similar issue to the use of the OT in the New in some ways. The usage in the New should be neither criticized nor copied for the way in which the Spirit of God uses certain quotations. So Ive stepped out and commented. What do you have to say Andy?

tie.crawler said...

I don't think I see any difference between the Jewish translators of the Hebrew to Greek as the translators of Greek/Hebrew to English in today's modern translations. We quote them authoritatively, don't we (though granted, we are not apostles). So there's really no difference between the Jews putting their theological biases into their translation as us putting our theological biases into ours.

Now I know that "literal is better", but there truly is no perfect translation. A certain amount of exegesis has to be done. There is no possible way to allow your theology infect your translation.

Example: Why do we all assume that Hebrews 4:12 "the word of God is quick and powerful" refers to the Bible, especially when the previous three chapters in Hebrews are talking about Christ? We take our unasked, unchallenged assumptions into our exegesis, and, I would argue, into our translation as well. No different than those Jews.

Matthew LaPine said...

you mean except the KJV right?

tie.crawler said...

Actually, I read an interesting article about the translation of the KJV. The KJV translators were much more comfortable with the Latin than the Greek. Problem is, Latin doesn't have an article at all, so they totally missed the point of some articles that were in the Greek. Quite a good read. If I could remember where that was, I'd tell you (maybe in Wallace?).

Andy Messmer said...

Let me try and re-clarify. My professor is saying that the Jews' understanding of the OT "evolved" over the years to take on "thicker" meaning (thicker meaning, well, thicker). Thus, the LXX translators "translated" the Hebrew OT into the Greek. Here is the issue- this "new" meaining of the text is that the New Testament authors used and quoted as authoritative. This issue relates to one's understanding of 1 Tim. 3:16 and neo-orthodoxy, where an individual "meets God" through the text, making it the means (or agent, I suppose) by which we are edified, convicted, etc. Hope that helps.